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DID THE LAW OF GOD EXIST BEFORE SINAI? BIBLE TRUTH
Many professed Christians today, when thinking of the law
of God, are directed to Sinai and the law given at Sinai, believing that the law of God did not exist before that time. This helps them to categorize the law
of God as being for the Jewish nation only. But is this truth? No, it is not, and in this page you will clearly see that the law of God existed, and was in force,
not only before Sinai, but from the beginning. Now there are a couple of Bible verses from the apostle Paul that some use to support their theory about there being
no law before Sinai. But when used
correctly, those verses show that God's law WAS in force before Sinai. Let us take a look:
Romans 4:15 ...'Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.'
Romans 5:13 ...'For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.'
Ok, so they are pretty clear statements. Where there is no law, sin is not imputed, meaning, no guilt and therefore no condemnation. And many people today apply these verses to the time between Adam and Moses, believing that the law of God was only first given and known at Sinai. They believe there was sin in the world, as the apostle Paul said above, yet no law until Sinai. But how can there be sin without a law to sin against? What is sin if there is no law? 1 John 3:4 says that 'sin IS the transgression of THE LAW.' Ok, well let us say just for argument's sake, that yes there was sin before Sinai, but sin wasn't imputed to sinners, because as Paul said above, where there is no law, sin is not imputed. Let us test this with the scriptures:
Let us first confirm - Where there is NO law, sin is not imputed and there is no condemnation. So then this clearly means that when sin IS imputed, you can be sure the law of God IS known and in force.
We must make sure we understand this. We cannot accept the one and ignore the opposite. If Paul said that sin is not imputed where there is no law, then the opposite is clearly true also, meaning when sin IS imputed, then you can be sure that man HAS the law of God and it is in force. So let us look at some examples between Adam and Moses:
Genesis 4:6-11,13 ...'And the Lord said unto Cain, Why art thou wroth? and why is thy countenance fallen? If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? and if thou doest not well, SIN lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him. And Cain talked with Abel his brother: and it came to pass, when they were in the field, that Cain rose up against Abel his brother, and slew him. And the Lord said unto Cain, Where is Abel thy brother? And he said, I know not: Am I my brother's keeper? And he said, What hast thou done? the voice of thy brother's blood crieth unto me from the ground. And now art thou cursed from the earth, which hath opened her mouth to receive thy brother's blood from thy hand ... And Cain said unto the Lord, my punishment is greater than I can bear.'
1 John 3:11-12 ...'For this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one another. Not as Cain, who was of that wicked one, and slew his brother. And wherefore slew he him? Because his own works were evil, and his brother's righteous.'
What was God's warning to Cain? 'If thou doest not well, SIN lieth at the door.' And what is sin? 'sin is the transgression of the law' (1 John 3:4). How could there be sin at this time if there was no law? And how could Cain be judged and condemned by God for killing Abel if there is no law? Remember, the apostle Paul said that sin is not imputed where there is no law. And yet God DID impute Cain's sin unto him, meaning God's law must have been known and in force. Some people say that since the time of Christ's first advent it is now all about 'love.' Well, what did the apostle John say above in 1 John 3? That the message of love has been there from the beginning and so too must have been God's law. It was not a new message, just 'new' in the sense that people didn't understand the truth.
Genesis 13:12-13 ...'Abram dwelled in the land of Canaan, and Lot dwelled in the cities of the plain, and pitched his tent toward Sodom. But the men of Sodom were wicked and SINNERS before the Lord exceedingly.'
So if the men of Sodom were declared as sinners before the Lord, they must have been committing much sin before the Lord and the Lord must have imputed sin unto them because He judged them and destroyed the city. Which means what? That the law of God must have been known and in force during that time. Do you see this? Paul said that sin is not imputed where there is no law. And yet God imputed Cain's sin and the sin of Sodom, bringing condemnation and judgment upon both, which means God's law must have been known and in force.
It's the same with the flood. God actually judged and condemned the world for its wickedness. How could God do this if there was no law? This proves that God's commandments, which were written down at Sinai, were already in force BEFORE Sinai.
Genesis 15:16 ...'But in the fourth generation they shall come hither again: for the iniquity of the Amorites is not yet full.'
1 Kings 21:25-26 ...' But there was none like unto Ahab, which did sell himself to work wickedness in the sight of the Lord, whom Jezebel his wife stirred up. And he did very abominably in following idols, according to all things as did the Amorites, whom the Lord cast out before the children of Israel.'
Now how does anyone know about idolatry? Because the LORD said 'thou shalt have no other gods before Me.' This is part of God's law. And how can anyone be charged with iniquity in this regards, as God charged the Amorites, if there was no knowledge of God's law at the time of Abraham? God could only impute sin unto man if man knew of God's law and God's law was binding upon man. God even said clearly that Abraham kept the law of God:
Genesis 26:5 ...'Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.'
How can Abraham keep something that does not exist or isn't known at this time in the world? Clearly, God's law did exist and was known and binding upon man. The law given at Sinai wasn't the first time God's law was made known. It was merely the first time that God's law was all WRITTEN DOWN. Before Sinai, the law of God must have been in the heart of man originally, and then taught verbally. Joseph knew of God's law:
Genesis 39:9 ...'There is none greater in this house than I; neither hath he kept back any thing from me but thee, because thou art his wife: how then can I do this great wickedness, and SIN against God?'
How did Joseph know that committing adultery with Potiphar's wife was a SIN against God? There is only one reason. Because Joseph knew of God's law, and this again was a long time before Sinai. It is clear then that the law of God was in existence and known before Sinai. So then, what was the purpose of giving the law at Sinai?
Romans 5:20 ...'Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound.'
Think about this. An offence is sin, which means if offences were already being committed and imputed, which we have seen above, then the law must have already been in existence. But God confirmed the law in writing at Sinai due to the fact that man was losing the ways and character and law of God in his heart. After the giving (confirming) of God's law in written format at Sinai, each person could at all times carefully examine the whole law for himself, and consequently, sins which before might have passed unnoticed, were made to stand out in their true character. Thus the offence was made to 'abound.' And as Paul says elsewhere that sin, by the commandment, no longer was a trivial matter, but became 'exceeding sinful' (Romans 7:13). Remember, the Hebrews spent 400 years in Egypt with their idolatrous ways and had forgotten the ways and law of God. Thus God had to confirm His law to re-teach the world of His law. Which is why it was confirmed in written format at Sinai. People knew portions of God's law in their hearts, but by and large, most had forgotten it, hence the 'entering' of God's law for the first time in a written format at Sinai - to show man his sin and guilt and direct man to God's salvation FROM sin.
So we can clearly see, when we properly study the Word of God, comparing scripture with scripture, that the law of God was in existence before Sinai, even from the beginning, including the 7th day Sabbath, which the 4th commandment confirms began at creation week, and which Exodus 16 confirms was also in force before Sinai. So those who seek to put away the commandments of God, do it at their own peril, for the Word of God does not support them in their folly, and they will be without excuse in the day of judgment.